Mac OS X 10.5 Test

You can access Wikipedia through the dictionary in OS X.
a. True
b. False

Mail can detect addresses in emails.
a. True
b. False

What is Boot Camp?
a. A recruitment pamphlet
b. A tool to run windows natively on a MAC
c. A booting assistant
d. None of the above

ScreenHunter_148 Dec. 09 18.25Left to right, what are those buttons functions?
a. Minimize, rectify, resize
b. Maximize, resize, close
c. Close, Minimize, Maximize
d. Close, rectify, resize

What is a application bundle for the UNIX system?
a. A link
b. A binary file
c. A folder
d. A special device
e. None of the above

Can we mount windows shares on MAC OS X?
a. Yes
b. No

Is MAC OS X POSIX compliant?
a. Yes
b. No

What is the MAC OS X printing system?
a. An HP printing system
b. Cups
c. A. Linux printing system
d. None of the above

ScreenHunter_149 Dec. 09 18.25What is mei?
a. A hard disk
b. A windows computer on the network
c. A MacOS X server
d. My computer

What are the possible views for items in Finder windows in Leopard?
a. Icons, stacks, columns and list
b. Only icons
c. Icons, list, columns and cover flow
d. None of the above

What is the name of the tool which allows looking inside a document without opening it?
a. Sneak Peak
b. Preview
c. Quick look
d. Sorcerer

How can you create a PDF instead of printing?
a. It’s not possible
b. By exporting it from the application
c. By using the PDF button in the print dialog
d. None of the above

How can you mount a disk image from the command line?
a. You cannot
b. By using mount
c. By using hdiutil
d. None of the above

ScreenHunter_149 Dec. 09 18.26What does this icon denote in the image shown above?
a. Internet icon
b. Preference
c. Info icon
d. Spotlight icon

Which of the following is the command to manipulate disk images?
a. diskutil
b. Mount
c. hdiutil
d. mkimage

Which of the following commands is like the activity viewer?
a. Activity
b. Top
c. list
d. Nice
e. Truss

What is the command to provide information about the currently running processes?
a. pl
b. ps
c. Process list
d. proc
e. None of the above

What does the private browsing option do in safari?
a. It prevents the sending of any information two web sites
b. It is equivalent to the invisible status in instant messaging systems
c. It make sure that the following aren’t stored: searches, cookies, history, form information
d. All of the above

ScreenHunter_150 Dec. 09 18.26What is this icon?
a. A walking folder
b. A public folder
c. A mortally folder
d. My computer

Under system preferences, can the dock be put at the top of the screen?
a. Yes
b. No

ScreenHunter_151 Dec. 09 18.26What is this view called?
a. Movie view
b. Cover flow
c. Super movie
d. Movie flow
e. Folder switching

Which of the following applications have tabs in leopard? Multiple Answers
a. Safari
b. Terminal
c. Mail
d. iTunes

Does safari 5.x support SSL versions 2 and 3 and transport layer security (TLS)?
a. Yes
b. No

What is the name of the Unix on which MAC OS X is based?
a. NetBSD
b. Darwin
c. Solaris
d. HPUX
e. Linux

Which of the following filesystems can be read by MAC OS X 10.5? Multiple Answers
a. NTFS
b. UFS
c. EXT3
d. FAT32
e. ZFS

Which of the following URI are correct? Multiple Answers
a. ftp://www.Mysite.com/myfolder
b. http://mysite.com/my path
c. File:///users/john/documents
d. http://ftp.mysite.com/my path
e. None

How can you open a finder window from the command line?
a. With the finder command
b. With the open command
c. It’s not possible
d. With the win command

How do you usually install most of the applications under Mac OS X?
a. With an msi installer
b. By drag and drop of the .app bundle
c. By using activeX controls
d. None of the above

If you have only one button on your mouse, which key would you press to emulate the right button?
a. command
b. Option
c. ctrl
d. Shift
e. fn

Which of the following can do calculations? Multiple answers
a. Calculator
b. Finder
c. Spotlight
d. Mail

What version of the Internet explorer is included in MAC OS X 10.5?
a. 7.0
b. 5.0
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

What feature was added to leopard to reduce desktop clutter?
a. The trash
b. Stacks
c. Folders
d. Spaces

Is IPX supported by MAC OS X?
a. Yes
b. No

ScreenHunter_151 Dec. 09 18.27

 

 

Which key should be pressed while clicking to open the menu on a window title bar, as in the image?
a. Command
b. Option
c. Control
d. Shift

What is the default filesystem under Mac OS X 10.5?
a. UFS
b. EXT3
c. ZFS
d. HFS+
e. NTFS

What is the name of the Mac OS X search engine?
a. Fastsearch
b. Live search
c. google
d. Spotlight

Can the finder mount WebDav shares?
a. Yes
b. No

Is journaling supported by HFS+?
a. Yes
b. No

What is the sudo command?
a. It does not exist
b. It is the super user do command
c. It is the command to schedule commands
d. None of the above

Is it possible to use a Mac to share an Internet connection?
a. Yes
b. No

What does ~ mean in a path?
a. Hard drive root
b. Document folder
c. Home folder
d. Network root
c. None of the above

ScreenHunter_152 Dec. 09 18.44

 

 

 

Which key can be used to immediately open a spring loaded folder?
a. Shift
b. Alt
c. Spacebar
d. Delete

How do you know it is a transaction has been secured with SSL under safari?
a. It’s not possible
b. All Internet transactions are secured
c. Safari does not support SSL
d. A lock appears at the top right corner of the safari window
e. None of the above

What is safari?
a. A calendar application
b. A contact list
c. A web browser
d. A mail client
e. None of the above

In which menu is an application preferences button usually located?
a. In the menu with the same name as the application
b. In the apple menu
c. In the help menu
d. All of the above

ScreenHunter_152 Dec. 09 18.27

 

 

 

 

What is phoenix?
a. A hard disk
b. A windows computer on the network
c. A Mac OS X server
d. My home folder

What are the view options for a folder in the dock in leopard? Multiple answers
a. Grid
b. List
c. Fan
d. Dossier
e. Automatic

Can PPC Mac run boot camp?
a. Yes
b. No

Is Mac OS X IPv6 capable?
a. Yes
b. No

What is the command to clear the terminal?
a. clean
b. Empty
c. Cleanse
d. Clear

How do you manage your e-mail accounts under Mac OS X10 0.5?
a. From the system preference pains
b. By loading the installer from the installed DVD
c. By loading the installer DVD
d. From mail.app preferences
e. None of the above

Can you share a printer with a windows client?
a. Yes
b. No

Cups can be configured with a web browser. On which port is the cups server and listening?
a. 132
b. 2546
c. 631
d. 548
e. 9845

What is the orange buttons in the Mac OS X windows title bar?
a. Auto resize
b. Minimized in the Dock
c. Open
d. Close
e. None of the above

What is the command to terminate an application from the command line?
a. Term
b. Kill
c. Stop
d. Halt
e. Shutdown

How do you customize a toolbar?
a. By double clicking it
b. By right clicking it
c. You cannot
d. None of the above

Where do you change the default application to open a document in the finder?
a. In the desktops preferences
b. In the documents info window
c. In the Finders preferences
d. In the enclosing folders info window
e. None of the above

The dashboard allows you to instantly access any open window with a single keystroke.
a. True
b. False

Mac OS X Cheat Sheet

Networking XP Test

xpMultiple displays is configured for user A but one user application failed to display on the secondary display. Troubleshoot.
a. Check if VGA driver is installed
b. Check if the application works on primary display
c. Check if the problem is only with secondary display
d. Check if boot.ini file is properly edited

Which command is used to encrypt or decrypt files?
a. cipher
b. Compact
c. Encrypt
d. netsh
e. ssh

Which three additional features, among the following, are available in windows XP professional additions compared to the whole edition?
a. IIS
b. Remote desktop
c. Compression
d. EFS
e. Convert utility
f. Print permissions

What could be done to improve the performance of windows XP Professional in one’s computer? Multiple answers
a. Reduce the size of page file
b. Run disk de-fragmentation
c. Increase the size of page file
d. Set the adjust for best performance option

Where should the complete IRQ list in windows XP be checked?
a. Computer management>> device manager>> View resource by type
b. Control panel>> Hardware action>> advanced IRQ
c. Device manager>> select the device resources
d. IRQ can all only be checked from BIOS

If a user gets destination host unreachable error, what is the root cause of the message?
a. DNS
b. WINS
c. Default gateway
d. Hop count

When can password reset disk be used?
a. To delete all user passwords
b. To set all user passwords at once
c. To change old password without knowing the old password
d. To create a new Password list

Which tool is used for installing windows XP professional onto multiple computers by using disk cloning?
a. Riprep.exe
b. Setupmgr.exe
c. Sysprep.exe
d. RIS

A user is trying to shut down another system by using shutdown command from XP. And error message is displayed access is denied. Troubleshoot this error message.
a. User is not authenticated
b. Invalid syntax is used
c. Destination computer is not reachable
d. User is restricted from using shutdown command

A user in the network is unable to open Internet explorer in windows XP. There is suspicion about some corrected system files. The user’s computer needs to be repaired with minimum effort. Which command should be run to check the system files status?
a. sfc
b. sigverif
c. nslookup
d. netsh

Which of the following utilities are used to improve disk performance? Multiple answers
a. Disk cleanup
b. DISk de-fragmentation
c. Check disk
d. Increasing the size of page file
e. All of the above

A basic disk has windows 2000 professional installed on NTFS. When administrator converts it to dynamic disk and tries to install windows XP professional, installation fails. Identify the cause.
a. XP can be installed on dynamic disk
b. Both operating systems can be installed on the same drive
c. There can be only one NTFS partition and disk
d. Fresh installation is not possible in dynamic disk

A user in a network reports that someone in the network is sending him unwanted messages. How will the system administrator find out about the machine from where messages are generated?
a. Event viewer
b. Message.log file from system root
c. Performance monitor
d. System information

Which feature is used at the folder level, so that any temporary copy of an encrypted file is also encrypted?
a. SSL
b. EFSc
c. Recovery agent
d. All of the above

Which of the following protocols are used to establish a remote desktop connection? Multiple answers
a. RDP
b. SMTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. HTTP

Which protocol/method is used to encrypt data over the network?
a. EFS
b. Kerberos
c. SSL
d. None of the above

What is the binary form of 150.210.99.5?
a. 11001011.00111011.11110000.10101010
b. 10010110.11010010.01100011.00000101
c. 10010111.11010011.01101111.11111000
d. 10001111.01111100.01110100.11100011

Which of the following protocols is used in class D?
a. ICMP
b. RPC
c. IGMP
d. IP

Which of the following commands is used to check the port status?
a. nbtstat
b. nslookup
c. netstat
d. pathping

By which of the following components can replication traffic be controlled and managed?
a. Organizational units
b. Sites
c. Distribution groups
d. Trees

User a in a network required the permissions to change the system time in windows XP as work group. How should he be granted the above permissions without affecting others?
a. Use power user group
b. Use administrators group
c. Grant hin the right to change the system time
d. Grant him to change the system permission from date and Time Properties

What is the private IP Range of class-B?
a. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
b. 172.0.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
c. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
d. 180.16.0.0 – 180.31.255.255

What do administrator shared folder names always end when?
a. $
b. #
c. @
d. %

When the administrator tries to convert basic disk to dynamic disk from computer management, he finds no options for conversion. Identify the reason.
a. There is no formatted free space available
b. No NTFS partition exists on basic disk
c. The disk is in a portable computer
d. The disk is a removable disk

The administrator of XYZ Company finds that one of the users in his network is trying to upload some unwanted material. He needs to prevent that user from uploading that immediately without affecting the work of other users who are accessing shared folders from the server. How should he disconnect that user without wasting time?
a. Disconnect user from computer management
b. Change the share folder permissions
c. Shut down the server
d. Unplugged the network cable from server

What are the physical components of active directory? Multiple answers
a. Domain
b. Organizational units
c. Domain controllers
d. Trees
e. Childs
f. Sites

Which of the following commands would be used to open registry?
a. REGEDIT
b. regedt32
c. regedt16
d. regedit32
e. registryedit

What does Author mode mean in MMC (Microsoft management console)?
a. Multiple windows
b. Add/remove snap-ins
c. No access to open new windows
d. New task pad views
e. No new task pad views

Why is the maximum character length of user named in windows XP?
a. 14 character
b. 16 character
c. 20 character
d. 24 character

How should the default Microsoft error reporting feature in windows XP be disabled?
a. My computer—properties—advanced—error reporting
b. Control panel—user accounts—disable error reporting
c. Control panel—taskbar and start menu—disable error reporting
d. My Computer Properties—system are a store—disable error reporting

Which of the following protocols are used in authenticating RRAS users?
a. MD5
b. MS-CHAP
c. MS-CHAP v2
d. PAP
e. EAP
f. PPTP

Which protocol is used by global catalog for searching objects in domain?
a. PPTP
b. IP sec
c. PPP
d. LDAP
e. SLIP

Choose the 24 bit format of IP address in decimal form.
a. 255.255.255.240
b. 255.255.255.192
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.252

A user in a company left the job. The administrator wants to decrypt all data because of losses of owner private key. Who can recover the decrypted data?
a. Members of power group
b. Recovery agent
c. Data can’t be recovered once private key is lost
d. It can be recovered by create a new user account with the same name

How can the priority of the processes be set?
a. Performance monitor
b. Network monitor
c. Local security policy
d. Task manager

Which method would be used to repair the following error – “NTLDR is missing”?
a. Safe mode
b. Directory service restore method
c. Recovery console
d. Reinstall operating system

How should the recovery console from a system be uninstalled?
a. Run winnt32 / cmdcons /uninstall
b. Delete hidden cmdcons from system drive and at it boot.ini file
c. Recovery console wants installed can never be uninstalled
d. Run format command on that drive where recovery console is installed

Which of the following items can be recovered if the user account is deleted in windows XP?
a. Desktop items
b. E-mail messages
c. Internet favorite
d. My document folders
e. Rights and permissions

How can you troubleshoot ‘stop memory errors’ and the drivers causing the errors?
a. Small memory dump
b. Kernel memory dump
c. Complete memory dump
d. Small dump directory

Which among the following are true regarding dynamic disks? Multiple answers
a. There can be any number of logical drives in the dynamic disk
b. There can be only one extended partition in dynamic disk
c. Dynamic disk can’t be reverted back to basic disk
d. 1 MB of free disk space is required for conversion
e. Dynamic disk is implemented for RAID support

WIndows XP Cheat Sheet

Health Club Management Certification

healthclub_ratecard_home

Personal Training at a Gym - Cable Crossover

Personal Training at a Gym – Cable Crossover (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

You should buy a domain name even if it will be awhile before you build your website?
a. true
b. false

When should a potential member fill out their fitness profile?
a. After they have taken a tour of the club
b. Before they have taken a tour of the club
c. When they sign up for the club membership
d. when they have their first trainer workout

How can you acquire equipment for your new club?
a. Purchase equipment
b. Lease Equipment
c. Purchase used equipment
d. All of the above

What should your club design focus on?
a. Something that people don’t really want to do
b. Something that people desperately want to do
c. Make people spend money on products and additional services
d. Make people join your gym

If you are introvert, operating a health club might not be the best job for you.
a. true
b. false

Any employee who works for a gym should be physically fit.
a. true
b. false

Which of these is not recommended as essential for your gym?
a. Stereo system
b. Cash Register
b. Many Mirrors
d. Televisions

What one component can do more to improve the overall look of your club than any other?
a. Design
b. Color
c. Expensive Equipment
d. Clean atmosphere

You should always strive to get as much free and low-costing advising as possible, rather than pay for expensive ads.
a. true
b. false

About what percentage of people in any given community will join a health club?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. %20
d. %45

What is one of the main disadvantages to not keeping a trainer on staff (but choosing to use the contractor status instead)?
a. They might also work elsewhere
b. You can’t advertise “x trainers on staff”
c. You can’t offer benefits
d. The trainer might leave and go somewhere else

When trying to set a price point for memberships, you should overestimate your expenses by how much?
a. 20%
b. 35%
c. 50%
d. 100%

What percentage of Americans use credit cards?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. More than 80%

Having a website is a good idea, but not really necessary.
a. true
b. false

As far as you are concerned the best type of memberships are paid.
a. Monthly
b. Annual
c. Weekly
d. Whenever as long as they are paid

Which methods of payment should you not accept?
a. Cash
b. Automatic debit
c. Checks
d. Credit Card payments

Which of these are not considered a “complimentary business” to your health club?
a. Smoothie club
b. Sandwich Shop
c. Coffee Shop
d. Golf Shop

A medium-size new club should have how many elliptical machines?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. none

What should always be included in a customer file?
a. A complete medical history
b. Before pictures
c. The member’s goal list
d. Medical and liability release

What unlikely question is fine to ask a potential health club employee?
a. Where did you last work
b. Why do you want to work here
c. What did you have for breakfast
d. What is your experience and training

When do you ask potential members to fill out a fitness profile?
a. To determine their level of fitness before they begin working out
b. To determine what they want or need out of your club
c. To get their contact information so you can reach them later
d. To determine if they are seriously interested in joining your club

What objection by a potential member is the easiest for you to deal with?
a. Not enough money
b. Want to think about it first
c. Need to ask husband/wife
d. Not enough time

In the fictional gym “Energy”, why does Jeff have one of his trainers work a split shift?
a. It works with her schedule
b. She requested it
c. It flows with the busy times in the gym
d. He didn’t want to trainers at work at the same time

A value club might be a welcome improvement to your suburban neighborhood, but a value club’s members can be ________.
a. Demanding
b. Dirty
c. Cheap
d. Already in shape

Your club should always have a sitting area, even if it’s just a small one inside the doors?
a. true
b. false

You should always keep your club open for only as many hours as you, personally can work.
a. true
b. false
When you give a potential member a tour, what kinds of words should you use?
a. Any words that sell, sell, sell
b. Positive, uplifting words
c. Words that apply to things they are looking for in a gym
d. Words relevant to their age and vemacular

When you discipline an employee, you should always talk privately, why?
a. If you don’t, they can sue you
b. You don’t want other employees to know how you handle discipline
c. You don’t want to embarrass them
d. It’s against labor laws not to

Which of these is not considered a quality essential to lead?
a. Confidence
b. Ability to inspire
c. Friendly demeanor
d. Ability to direct people

Managing people is the same as leading them.
a. true
b. false

If your gym is located in a suburban area, you will be most busy when?
a. Lunchtime
b. Mornings and weekends
c. Evening
d. All day

When you consider like clubs and their prices for memberships and their services you should look in a variety of locals for comparisons.
a. true
b. false

One major disadvantage of a volume club is _______.
a. The need to keep longer hours
b. Wear and tear on the equipment
c. Your profit is lower
d. People prefer value clubs

How can you encourage people to use automatic debit to pay for their monthly membership?
a. Offer a discount
b. Offer a free month per year
c. Make other forms of payment difficult
d. Charge a fee for other forms of payment

Which of these is NOT a factor in setting your membership prices?
a. The skill of your staff and trainers
b. What gyms across the country are charging
c. Your geographic location
d. Your operating costs

What one inexpensive component can dramatically change the look of your club?
a. Paint
b. Cleanser
c. New Equipment
d. Lighting

It really doesn’t matter if you keep customer files on the computer or in paper form, as long as the system works for you and your employees.
a. true
b. false

Which of these is not a leadership quality?
a. Ability to direct
c. Being open minded
d. Positive attitude
e. Confidence

What can you do to ensure you gym stays clean?
a. Spend five minutes cleaning the equipment each hour
b. Hire a high-quality cleaning crew
c. Tell gum members to clean the equipment after they use it
d. Have your staffers spend about an hour at the end of each day cleaning the gym

If you were to follow the suggested list for equipment in the course, how much would you spend each month on equipment leases?
a. $1,000
b. $150
c. $2,000
d. $10,000

Health Club management Certification Program

Networking Concepts Test

imageWhat is the IEEE 802.3 standard related to?
a. Definitions of the logical link control (LLC) sublayer
b. Token Ring
c. Token Bus
d. Ethernet

What is the IEEE 802.2 standard related to?
a. Definitions of the logical link control (LLC) sublayer
b. Token Ring
c. Token Bus
d. Ethernet

What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?
a.64 kbps
b. 128 kbps
c. 256 kbps
d. 1.544 mbps

What are PPP and SLIP most commonly used for?
a. Connecting to the Internet through DSL lines
b. Connecting to the internet through telephone lines
c. Connecting through the internet through optic lines
d. Connecting though the internet using wireless modems

What is the speed of a T1 line?
a. 128 kbps
b. 144 kbps
c. 2.048 Mbps
d. 1.544 Mbps

What is the purpose of the shielding in a shielded twisted pair (STP) cable?
a. To reduce attenuation
b. To reduce cross talk
c. To reduce electro-magnetic Interference

What do you call a communication system in which data cannot be sent in both directions at the same time?
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Asynchronous
d. Synchronous

What do you call a communication system which uses start and stop bits to synchronize the sender and receiver?
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Asynchronous
d. Synchronous

What do you call a communication system uses a clocking mechanism to synchronize the sender and receiver?
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Asynchronous
d. Synchronous

At which layer of the OSI model, does FTP operate?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Presentation

What is the Binary value of 157?
a. 11000111
b. 10111001
c. 11100011
d. 10011101

According to the OSI model, which layer performs compression and decompression?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Data Link

At which layer of the OSI model, does the World Wide Web operate?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Presentation

According to the OSI model, which layer performs encryption and decryption?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Data Link

Which network topology does Ethernet use?
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Mesh

What does CSMA/CD stand for?
a. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Deterence
c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection
d. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Carrier Detection

Which of the following is an ‘end-to-end’ layer?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport

According to the OSI model, which layer breaks down the data into frames?
a. Network
b. Data Link
c. Transport
d. Physical

According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for routing?
a. Session
b. Data Link
c. Presentation
d. Network

What is the binary value of hex 9F?
a. 10011111
b. 10111000
c. 11110001
d. 10001111

According to the OSI model, which layer performs parity checking and error checking?
a. Session
b. Data Link
c. Presentation
d. Physical

What do you call a fibre optic cable in which the light signals follow a single path?
a. Multi mode
b. Single mode
c. Broadband
d. Baseband

Old mainframe computers were an example of ______?
a. Distributed computing
b. Client server computing
c. Peer to Peer computing
d. Centralized computing

How many bearer (B) and data (D) channels are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?
a. 2B + 1D channel
b. 16B + 1D channel
c. 23B + 1D channel
d. 24B + 2D channels

Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to TCP?
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Data Link

According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for sending acknowledgements?
a. Session
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. Presentation

According to the OSI model, at which layer are network addresses assigned?
a. Session
b. Data Link
c. Presentation
d. Network

According to the OSI model, which layer performs the function of transforming bits of data into electrical signals and sending those signals across the media?
a. Network
b. Data Link
c. Transport
d. Physical

Which cable used for RJ11 connectors?
a. Thin Coaxial Cable
b. Thick Coaxial Cable
c. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
d. Telephone Cable

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Client Server networks?
a. They have poor security
b. Data is not centrally organized
c. Centralized administration is not possible
d. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a server

Which protocol is connection oriented?
a. TCP
b. IP
c. UDP
d. ICMP

In a TCP/IP network, which layers are basically absent?
a. Session, Presentation
b. Transport, Session
c. Session, Application
d. Presentation, Application

Which network topology does FDDI use?
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Mesh

Which one of the following devices breaks up a Broadcast Domain by default?
a. Hub
b. Repeater
c. Router
d. Switch

Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to IP?
a. Network
b. Physical
c. Session
d. Data Link

According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of connections (connection-oriented/ connection-less communication)?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport

What is a checksum?
a. An error detection technique
b. A network troubleshooting device
c. Another name for protocol header
d. Another name for protocol trailer

What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class B network?
a. 65536
b. 65534
c. 256
d. 254

Which of the following protocols does not support Routing?
a. IPX/SPX
b. TCP/IP
c. NetBEUI

Which media suffers least from attenuation?
a. Thin Coaxial Cable
b. Thick Coaxial Cable
c. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
d. Fibre Optic Cable

At which layer does a Bridge operate?
a. Network
b. Physical
c. Session
d. Data Link

What is the purpose of the shielding in a Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable?
a. To reduce attenuation
b. To reduce cross talk
c. To reduce Electro-Magnetic Interference

In a TCP/IP network, which of the following must be unique for each computer in the network?
a. IP address
b. Subnet mask
c. Default Gateway

What is the full form of DSL?
a. Digital Subscription Line
b. Digital Super Link
c. Digital Speed Line
d. Digital Subscriber Line

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Peer Networks?
a. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a server
b. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a specialized network operating system
c. They usually require a network administrator
d. They have poor network security

According to the OSI model, which layer provides services such as file transfer, database access and email?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Data Link

What do you call a medium which allows multiple channels?
a. Multi mode
b. Single mode
c. Broadband
d. Baseband

What is the maximum transmission speed of CAT 5 cable?
a. 10 Mbps
b. 16 Mbps
c. 100 Mbps
d. 1000 Mbps

How is a unique MAC address assigned to a Network Card?
a. It is built into the card when the card is manufactured
b. The network administrator must assign the address
c. A unique address is automatically assigned when the card drivers are installed
d. A unique address is automatically assigned whenever you boot up the computer

What does ISDN stand for?
a. Information Systems Digital Network
b. Integrated Services Digital Network
c. Internet Services Digital Network
d. Internet Systems Data Network

What is the speed of a E1 line?
a. 128 kbps
b. 144 kbps
c. 2.048 Mbps
d. 1.544 Mbps

What is attenuation?
a. Distortion of the signal due to noise
b. Distortion of the signal due to Electro Magnetic Interference
c. Weakening of the signal in a cable over a distance
d. Cross Talk

For which layer of the OSI model has the Ethernet standard been defined?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport
e. Both a and b
f. Both b and c

What is the purpose of the MAC sublayer?
a. Sending acknowledgements whenever packets are received
b. Performing data compression
c. Performing encryption and decryption
d. Controlling the way multiple devices share the same media

At which layer does a Proxy Server operate?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Presentation
According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of communication media and cable connectors etc?
a. Network
b. Data Link
c. Transport
d. Physical

What are V 42, V 22, V 42bis?
a. IEEE Standards
b. Modem Standards
c. CCITT Standards
d. MAC Addressing formats
e. Digital certificate formats

Which layer do network cards and their drivers correspond to?
a. Data Link
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Session

Which of the following is a FIBRE optic connector?
a. RJ-11
b. RJ-45
c. MT-RJ
d. None of the above

What is a token?
a. A part of a packet trailer in a token ring network
b. A part of the packet header in a token ring network
c. A special packet which travels from computer to computer in a token ring network

What is ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)?
a. It is a WAN technology based on frequency division multiplexing that uses fixed size packets known as cells
b. It is a WAN technology based on time division multiplexing that uses variable size packets
c. It is a WAN technology based on time division multiplexing that uses fixed size packets known as cells
d. It is a virtual circuit based WAN technology

Which of the following is false with regard to asymmetric DSL?
a. It uses standard copper telephone cables
b. It delivers much higher speeds than a serial modem
c. It uses more channels for downloading data and fewer for uploading
d. It employs analog modulation to deliver data from your pc to the telephone service provider

At which layer of the OSI model, does HTTP operate?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Presentation

At which layer does a hub operate?
a. Network
b. Physical
c. Session
d. Data Link

Networking Cheat Sheets

Software Testing Test

English: The black box testing and white box t...

English: The black box testing and white box testing involves in database testing. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?
a .A Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
b. A Sanity test is run to check if the build of an application is stable and it can be considered for further testing
c. A Sanity test is the process of testing to make sure that the older programming still works with the new changes
d. All of the above are true

Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?
a. They are used to support multi-user testing
b. They capture aspects of user behavior
c. They are the most frequently used types of CAST tools
d. They are used to capture and playback user requirements

Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?
a. System testing
b. Model testing
c. Integration testing
d. User acceptance testing

The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:
a. Test Run
b. Test Script
c. Test Plan
d. Test Scenario

Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?
a. Disk space
b. Network bandwidth
c. Internal memory
d. All of the above

Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?
a. Integration testing
b. Regression testing
c. System testing
d. User acceptance testing

What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?
a. Retesting is done by programmers while Regression testing is done by testers
b. Retesting checks for unexpected side-effects while Regression testing ensures that the original fault has been corrected
c. Retesting ensures that the original fault has been corrected while Regression testing checks for other unexpected side-effects
d. There is no difference between Regression testing and Retesting

What do you understand by the term “Monkey test“?
a. It is random testing performed by automated testing tools
b. It is used to simulate the actions a user might perform
c. It is another name for Monitor testing

Which of the following options correctly defines the term “test harness”?
a. It is a high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
b. It is a set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
c. It is a collection of software and test data configured to test a program unit by running it under varying conditions and monitoring its behavior and outputs
d. It is a set of several test cases for a component or a system under test

Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:
a. Activity analysis
b. Defect taxonomy for test design
c. Root cause analysis
d. Cleanroom software development

In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?
a. Repetitive testing
b. Model testing
c. Modular testing
d. System testing

Which of the following is not a part of System testing?
a. Recovery testing and failover testing
b. Performance, Load and Stress testing
c. Usability testing
d. Top-down integration testing

In Bottom-up integration testing,
a. Major decision points are tested in the early phase
b. No drivers need to be written
c. No stubs need to be written
d. Regression testing is not required

Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?
a. Top-down
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. None of the above

Which of the following is false about software testing?
a. Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage that low level modules never need testing
b. Alpha testing is in-house testing performed by the test team
c. Equivalence partitioning is used to minimize the number of permutations and combinations of input data
d. Fuzz testing provides random data to the input of a program

When a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:
a. Regression testing
b. Maintenance testing
c. Confirmation testing
d. None of the above

The determination of adherence or non adherence to a compliance is carried out during:
a. Inspection
b. Audit
c. White-box testing
d. Walkthrough

Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?
a. It describes the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
b. It is a form of White-box testing
c. It is a form of Black-box testing

Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?
a. Verification is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Validation is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
b. Validation is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Verification is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
c. Validation tells us what to test and Verification decides on the methodology to go about testing the application
d. None of the above

From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?
a. Code complexity analysis
b. Profiling
c. Network packet sniffing
d. Spelling and grammar checking
e. Program slicing

Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?
a. It takes an external perspective of the test object to derive test cases.
b. It is sometimes also called as Opaque Testing, Functional Testing and Closed Box Testing.
c. It uses an internal perspective of the system to design test cases based on internal structure.

Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing into the whole software development life cycle?
a. Agile model
b. Waterfall model
c. V-Model
d. Spiral model

What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?
a. Unit, Integration, System, Validation
b. System, Integration, Unit, Validation
c. Unit, Integration, Validation, System
d. None of the above

Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?
a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Authentication
d. Authorization

Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?
a. Code review
b. Inspection
c. Walkthroughs
d. System tests

Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:
a. A Stub is basically the same as a driver except that it is very fast in returning results
b. A Stub is a dummy procedure, module or unit that stands in for an unfinished portion of a system
c. A Stub is just a different name for an Emulator
d. None of the above

Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?
a. reusability
b. efficiency
c. speed
d. allows testing of video and mp3 files

Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?
a. Static analysis tool
b. Debugging tool
c. Test management tool
d. Configuration management tool

Identification of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?
a. Control flow analysis
b. Data flow analysis
c. Coding standards analysis
d. Function Point Analysis?

Beta testing is performed by:
a. An independent test team
b. The software development team
c. In-house users
d. External users

Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?
a. Load/Stress testing
b. Unit testing
c. Security testing
d. Stress testing

The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:
a. Inspection
b. Black box testing
c. White box testing
d. Walkthrough

___________ testing is used to evaluate and understand the application’s reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased.
a. Integration
b. Performance
c. Regression
d. Stability

Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?
a. Performance errors
b. Logical errors
c. Typographical errors
d. Behavioral errors

Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy

Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.
a. True
b. False

What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?
a. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a non-catastrophic system halt
b. A gradual performance improvement leading to a catastrophic system halt
c. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a catastrophic system halt
d. A gradual performance improvement to a non-catastrophic system halt

The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:
a. Fuzz testing
b. Black-box testing
c. Sanity testing
d. Smoke testing

Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?
a. A software testing design technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values
b. A type of software testing used for testing two or more modules or functions together with the intent of finding interface defects between the modules or functions
c. It is the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
d. A software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of data from which test cases can be derived

Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?
a. Test Automation is the process of writing a computer program to do testing that would otherwise need to be done manually.
b. Test Automation is the use of software to control the execution of tests and the comparison of actual outcomes to predicted outcomes.
c. Test Automation tools may provide record and playback features that allow users to interactively record user actions and replay it back any number of times.
d. Test Automation is the set of procedures used by organizations to ensure that a software product will meet its quality goals at the best value to the customer.

What is Boundary testing?
a. It tests values at and near the minimum and maximum allowed values for a particular input or output.
b. It test different combinations of input circumstances
c. It is a testing technique associated with White-Box testing.
d. Both a and b

Choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:
a. Slow response time
b. Excessive application consumption
c. Random Application termination
d. Failure to encrypt data

The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:
a. Fuzz Testing
b. Black-box testing
c. Sanity Testing
d. Smoke Testing

When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The managers to see what projects it should be used in a
e. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a. Measuring response time
b. Measuring transaction rates
c. Recovery testing
d. Simulating many users
e. Generating many transactions

Testing Cheat Sheet

Knowledge of Skype Development Test

Image representing Skype as depicted in CrunchBase

Image via CrunchBase

What would the following statement be used for?

Set oHandle=oCall.PartnerHandle

a. To retrieve the name of a remote caller

b. To retrieve the Skype name of a remote caller

c. To retrieve the call object with a Specified ID

 

What is the default sort order for the order-by-field of the Skype search listing API?

a. Relevance

b. Highest-rated

c. A-z

d. None of the above

 

Which property of the AppllicationStream class returns the name of an application stream?

a. ApplicationName

b. Handle

c. DataLength

d. PartnerHandle

 

Which of the following types of chat member roles CANNOT post chat messages in the chat?a

a. Creator

b. Master

c. Listener

d. Applicant

e. Helper

f. User

 

What is the maximum character length of a caption in a custom menu item in Skype?

a. 16

b. 32

c. 48

d. 64

 

What should you use in place of a special character @ (at) in a Skype DNS request?

a. -2E

b. -5F

c. -2C

d. -40

e. -2D

 

What status code is returned in response to a DNS request if the user has been away?

a. 0

b. 2

c. 3

d. 6

 

Suppose you are using Skype in Windows. You get an error message that your webcam is in use by another application, even though it is not in use anymore. What is the solution to the problem?

a. Redial the call

b. Ignore the message

c. Upgrade the receiver’s Skype to the latest version

d. There is no solution available yet

 

Is it possible to join the chat again after being kicked from a Skye chat?

a. Yes

b. No

 

In which of the following Internet Explorer security zones dies a prompt appear for the account API  for skype4COM?

a. Local Machine

b. Local Intranet

c. Trusted

d. Internet

e. Restricted

 

What type of target parameter type is used by the Skype “CALL” API if you initiate a call using a phone number?

a. USERNAME

b. PSTN

c. SPEED DIAL CODE

d. None of the above

 

What is the role of an HTML OBJECT tag with respect to Skype?

a. It is used to add videos to a web page.

b. It is used to add Skype4COM controls to a web page.

c. It is used to add CSS style sheet to a web page.

d. None of the above

 

Which of the following properties of the IPluginMenuItem Interface contains the name of a plug-in menu item?

a. Id

b. Caption

c. Hint

d. Enabled

 

What happens if the following API call is processed?

ALTER CHAT <chat_id> SETOPTIONS 8

a. JOINING_ENABLED

b. JOINERS_BECOME_APPLICANTS

c. JOINERS_BECOME_LISTENERS

d. HISTORY_DISCLOSED

e. USERS_ARE_LISTENERS

 

Which of the following types of parameter is not valid for GET CONNSTATUS API call?

a. OFFLINE

b. AWAY

c. CONNECTING

d. PAUSING

e. ONLINE

 

Which of the following are mandatory fields of the Skype search listing API?

a. limit

b. order-by

c. lang-set

d. offset

 

What is the maximum value for the limit field in the Skype search listing API?

a. 100

b. 500

c. 1000

d. There is no limit.

 

By default, for how many seconds does a forwarded call ring before timing out?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 25

 

Which parameter is returned by the VIDEO_SEND_STATUS API call if the video is sending but is not yet running at full speed?

a. STARTING

b. AVAILABLE

c. RUNNING

d. PAUSED

 

What is the default sort order for the order-by field of the Skype search listing API?

a. relevance

b. highest-rated

c. a-z

d. None of the above

 

What causes the API call given below to return ERROR 563?

SEARCH GROUPS [{ ALL | CUSTOM | HARDWIRED }]?

a. Invalid target

b. Invalid group id

c. Invalid group object

d. Invalid group property given

 

What is the error if the Skype API throws error code 2?

a. General syntax error

b. Unknown command

c. Empty target not allowed

d. Invalid user handle

 

Which of the following are input parameters of the PlaceCall public member function of the ISkype Interface?

a. Target

b. Target2

c. pMessage

d. pCall

 

What function does the following command perform?

 

\fn HRESULT ISkype::ApiSecurityContextEnabled([in] TApiSecurityContext Context, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* pVal)

a. This command queries if an API security context is enabled.

b. This command queries if Account Services are enabled for a web page.

c. This command enables voice and messaging services for a page.

d. None of the above

 

What happens when a call is forwarded to multiple numbers by a CALL_FORWARD_RULES API call?

a. The first to pick up the call takes it.

b. All the numbers who pick up the call take it.

c. All the numbers take the call one by one.

d. Calls cannot be forwarded to multiple numbers.

 

What will a PING API call return if the connection between your application and Skype is still alive?

a. PING TRUE

b. PONG

c. PING

d. TRUE

 

Which of the following TApiSecurityContext parameters relates to the user profile and Skype-related commands and events?

a. TApiSecurityContext::apiContextUnknown

b. TApiSecurityContext::apiContextVoice

c. TApiSecurityContext::apiContextMessaging

d. TApiSecurityContext::apiContextAccount

e. TApiSecurityContext::apiContextContact

 

What is the reason when the FAILUREREASON property of the FILETRANSFER object has a value of FAILED_WRITE?

a. Write error on local machine

b. Write error on remote local machine

c. Write error on local as well as remote machine

d. None of the above

 

What happens if the language suffix specified by you in an HTTP request is NOT supported by SkypeWeb?

a. There is no response.

b. The server response will use the default language.

c. The server responds with Unknown message.

d. An error message is returned.

 

Which of the following parameters of the _ICallChannelManagerEvents Interface contains the interface pointer for the CallChannelCollection object?

a. pManager

b. pChannels

c. pMessage

d. None of the above

 

You are going to set a chat message using an API call as follows:

SET CHATMESSAGE <id> SEEN

You receive the error:

ERROR 18 SET: invalid WHAT

 

What can the possible cause for the error be?

a. The CHATMESSAGE command is missing or misspelled.

b. Unknown chat message ID.

c. Chat message ID is misspelled or contains non-permitted symbols (numeric symbols are permitted).

d. Invalid status given to chat message, for example the message is already marked as seen.

 

Which of the following are NOT parameters of  theLoadAvatarFromFile public member function of the ISettings Interface?

a. Filename

b. AvatarId

c. newVal

d. Id

 

Suppose you are using Skype in Windows. You get an error message that your webcam is in use by another application, even though it is not in use anymore. What is the solution to the problem?

a. Redial the call.

b. Ignore the message.

c. Upgrade the receiver’s Skype to the latest version.

d. There is no solution available yet.

 

Which of the following types of APIs are allowed in Internet Explorer Local Intranet security zone for Skype4COM?

a. Voice API

b. Messaging API

c. Account API

d. Contact API

 

Is the Skype username case sensitive?

a. Yes

b. No

 

What happens when the following API call is executed and the folder parameter is left blank?

OPEN FILETRANSFER <username>[, <username>]*[ IN <folder>]

a. There will be an error.

b. The file transfer window opens in the default directory.

c. A prompt appears on the user’s screen to specify the path for the folder.

d. None of the above

 

What happens if you type the following command in a textbox in a chat session:

/alertsonyourname

a. You get an alert whenever someone mentions yourname.

b. You get an alert whenever someone leaves the chat.

c. All the alerts are turned off.

d. You get an alert only when someone enters the chat.

 

What is the possible status if the BUDDYSTATUS property of a USER object has a value of 3?

a. Never been in contact list

b. Deleted from contact list

c. Pending authorization

d. Added to contact list

 

If you do NOT want Skype to display a splash screen on start-up, what should the value of the Nosplash parameter of the Client class in the IClient Interface be?

a. True

b. False

c. 1

d. 0

 

Which of the following are not parameters of the LoadAvatarFromFile public member function of the ISettings Interface?

a. Filename

b. AvatarID

c. NewVal

d. ID

 

Question: 33

Which of the following types of chat member roles CANNOT post chat messages in the chat?

a. CREATOR

b. MASTER

c. LISTENER

d. APPLICANT

e. HELPER

f. USER

 

Which of the following clauses are not allowed in a single row sub-query?

a. From

b. Where

c. Group by

d. Having

e. Order by

 

 Skype Cheat Sheet

 

Related articles

Firewall Test

aLogging should be enabled for all the rules in the rule base.

a. True

b. False

 

Which type of NATing will you use so that the web server can be accessed from the internet?

a. Static NAT

b. Dynamic NAT

c. Source based NAT

d. Destination based NAT

 

Which of the following is helped by logging?  **Multiple answers**

a. Health of the firewalls

b. Status of the firewalls

c. Troubleshooting the issues

d. Monitoring the firewalls

 

Digital Certificates are used for ______.  **Multiple answers**

a. Encryption

 b. Verification

c. Attacking

d. Authentication

 

At which layer do the firewalls generally work in the OSI model?

a. Network layer

b. Transport layer

c. Data Link Layer

d. Physical layer

 

Which of the following are hash algorithms?  **Multiple answers**

a. MD5

b. AES

c. SHA 1

d. AES-128

e. AES-256

 

What are the advantages of DMZ?

a. It isolates the incoming traffic

b. It enhances the security of the network

c. It implements the mutilayered approach to secure the resources

d. All of the above

 

Which of the following things should be kept in mind while troubleshooting the firewall problems?

a. Verification of the problem

b. Status of the firewall

c. Firewall Logs

d. Firewall configuration

e. All of the above

 

What is the mode of operation of firewalls?

a. Bridge mode

b. Route mode

c. Hybrid mode

d. VPN Mode

 

Which of the traffic listed below should be generally blocked?

a. Source routed packets

b. Broadcasts

c. Peer-to-peer fire sharing

d. All of the above

 

What is the CIA concept?

a. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access

b. Confidentiality, Integrity and Administration

c. Continuity, Integrity and Authentication

d. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

 

Syslog protocol is used for _______

a. Managing the firewall

b. Event notification

c. Encryption

d. VPN

 

Which of the following can be categorized as a threat to secured resources?

a. Un-authorized access

b. Impersonation

c. Denial of service

d. All of the above

 

At which layer does the circuit-level firewall work?

a. Session layer

b. Data link layer

c. Transport layer

d. Physical layer

e. Network layer

 

Which zone is the non-trusted zone in firewalls architecture?

a. Local Area Network (LAN)

b. Wide Area Network (WAN)

c. DMZ

d. RAS

 

Which packet is sent by the source to initiate the connection in TCP 3-way handshake?

a. SYN

b. SYN/ACK

c. ACK

d. All of the above

 

By using which command can you see the active TCP connections?

a. Netstat

b. Ipconfig

c. Itconfig

d. Traceroute

 

In a stateful inspection firewall, the entries about the connection states are made in the _____ table.

a. NAT table

b. State table

c. TCP/IP table

d. Connection table

e. ARP table

 

Which of the following things should be kept in mind before implementing/configuring the Firewalls?

a. Network diagram

b. Traffic flow

c. Topology

d. All of the above

 

What is spoofing?

a. Firewall technology

b. Firewall managing technique

c. DOS attack

d. Firewall monitoring used while troubleshooting

e. Technique used to gain unauthorized access to computers

 

What is SSL?

a. Firewall technology

b. A type of attack

c. Encryption technology

d. Secure site linking

 

Which of the following are Encryption algorithms?  **Multiple answers**

a. SHA1

b. AES

c. MD5

d. 3DES

e. DES

f. CAST

 

Port-Scanning tools helps the administrator in which of the following?  **Multiple answers**

a. Finding the vulnerabilities

b. Crashing the firewall

c. Building a strong security policy

d. To test the firewalls configuration

 

Which protocol is used by the DNS?  **Multiple answers**

a. TCP

b. UDP

c. IP

d. IPX

 

HTTPS uses _____ encryption technology to encrypt the communication between Client’s system and Firewalls.

a. SHA 1

b. MD5

c. SSH

d. SSL

 

Which of the following tools can be used to find vulnerabilities?

a. Ethereal

b. Nessus

c. TCPDUMP

d. SNORT

 

What does sniffing mean?

a. Encrypting a data

b. Decrypting a data

c. Encryption algorithm

d. Capturing data traveling across the network

 

A TCP connection is complete when it receives the ____ Packet.

a. SYN

b. ACK

c. SYN-ACK

d. URG

 

What are the advantages of stateful inspection firewall?

a. High performance

b. Security

c. Transparency

d. All of the above

 

The vulnerabilities in the network/system can be exploited by threats.

a. True

b. False

 

Which of the reasons listed below lead to common attacks?  **Multiple answers**

a. Un-authorized mail relaying

b. Application bugs

c. Operating System Bugs

d. Spoofing

 

Which of the following ports is used by IMAP?

a. 139

b. 137

c. 143

d. 122

e. 45

 

To which of the following components does MUA (mail transfer agent) forward the mail while sending it to another host in the email flow?

a. Mail user agent

b. Firewall

c. Router

d. Mail Transfer Agent

 

What is the function of the reverse dns lookup technique in identifying spam mails?

a. To catch the senders email server attempting for spoof

b. To catch the receivers email server attempting for spoof

c. To catch the dns server validity

What are zombies?

a. Antispam solutions

b. Remotely controlled host

c. Antivirus solutions

d. Hackers

 

Which key is used to decrypt the message in PKI?

a. Public

b. Private

c. Pre-shared

d. Hybrid

 

What is the function of MTA(Mail transfer agent)?

a. It helps in reading the emails

b. It receives and delivers the messages

c. It resolves the names

d. It detects emails carrying virus

 

Which of the following are disadvantages of verification?

a. More complications

b. Increased internet traffic

c. Problems in sending valid bulk mails

d. Insecurity against social engineering

e. All of the above

 

During an outgoing VoIP call made through and IP PBX using a standard phone number. If the IP PBX cannot match the phone number with a SIP URI, than the IP PBX and the receiving device communicate over  ____________.

a. VoIP

b. SIP URI

c. TEL URI

d. PSTN

 

Firewall Cheat Sheet